- Fri Oct 17, 2025 9:02 am
#121841
Hi hinarizvi,
First, if you haven't already done so, I'd recommend reading the earlier posts by Brook and Kelsey (Post #2 and Post #4) as you may find them helpful.
Answer E is tricky, as it's almost getting to the right idea.
As Kelsey explains, clairvoyance refers to the process of obtaining knowledge, not the knowledge itself. This is one of the reasons that Answer E is incorrect. The other reason is that the argument does not in fact demonstrate that clairvoyance is not knowledge or even that clairvoyance is not a reliable process. The argument is based on beliefs about clairvoyance rather than whether or not clairvoyance is actually reliable in reality. The argument states that if (hypothetically) people believed that clairvoyance were reliable, then the claims made via clairvoyance would be considered knowledge.
Answer A matches what is really happening in the argument. The argument is really about whether the definition of knowledge is correct. The argument defends the definition by pointing out that the objection raised by the clairvoyance hypothetical doesn't in fact disprove the definition because clairvoyance doesn't meet the criteria of being a reliable method based on our beliefs about clairvoyance. In other words, the definition of knowledge is fine, but the claims made based on clairvoyance would not be considered knowledge so long as we didn't consider clairvoyance a reliable method, as required by the definition.