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This argument says, it is not the case that: author's intent to give pleasure Not(True)
Evidence: If this were the case then, popular books gave pleasure Not(True)
The sufficient conditions intent to give pleasure and gave pleasure have the same necessary condition. Since they are, therefore, treated as the same, how do we determine which of them is sufficient and which is necessary? Or does this mean that they are both sufficient and necessary for one another in this argument? In other words:
intent to give pleasure actually giving pleasure ?
I hope this question makes sense. I guess I'm also asking if Answer D would have been equally correct to say:
If a book was intended by its author to give pleasure then it will have that effect.
Thank you for your help!