#19 - Studies have shown that pedestrians are struck by cars

[Jeff Wren]

Hi lawschoolgirl,

There are a few problems with Answer D. First, notice the word "generally" in the answer. Even if "drivers are generally most alert to pedestrians who are in or near crosswalks" (my emphasis), that does not mean that there could still be many drivers who are not most alert at the time. In addition, even if drivers are most alert to pedestrians in or near crosswalks, it is still possible that pedestrians' overly strong sense of security increases their likelihood of being struck (such as if they are less likely to look both ways before stepping onto the street).

The stimulus provides a causal explanation for the fact that pedestrians are struck more often in crosswalks than outside of them. The best way to weaken such a causal argument is to provide an alternate cause, as Answer A does. Answer D does not provide an alternate cause. In fact, Answer D makes the results of the study more surprising by eliminating another possible alternate cause (which would be if drivers became less alert at crosswalks). In other words, if drivers being most alert for pedestrians at crosswalks means that the pedestrians are justified in feeling secure, then why are there more pedestrians struck at crosswalks? Answer D doesn't provide an explanation for this fact that is not in dispute.

In addition to being causal, this stimulus (and the correct answer) is really testing the concept of numbers and percentages (which often overlaps with causal reasoning). Because the studies are citing raw numbers of pedestrians struck when they should be using percentages (since risk, danger, etc. are percentage ideas), that is the real flaw/weakness here that Answer A addresses.

[artfiend]

Hello. I am still confused by this question. How is "more often" about numbers and not about rates. If I say, I go to the beach more often than I go to the park, that means I go to the beach at a higher rate than I go to the park. Im just confused how we are able to interpret "more often" as meaning a higher number of people get hit walking on a crosswalk instead of a higher rate of people. Thank you!

[Jeff Wren]

Hi artfiend,

"More often" is referring to numbers rather than percentages/likelihood. The definition of "often" is "frequently, many times," and "more often" basically means more frequently or more times. In other words, "more often" means a larger number of times.

You wrote:

"If I say, I go to the beach more often than I go to the park, that means I go to the beach at a higher rate than I go to the park."

Actually, if you go to the beach more often than you go to the park, that does mean that the number of times that you've gone to the beach is greater than the number of times that you've gone to the park.

Here's another example that commits the same type of numbers/percentages flaw that the argument in this question makes.

People die while sleeping more often than people die while skydiving; therefore sleeping is more dangerous than skydiving.

While it is certainly true that more people (as a raw number) die while sleeping than die while skydiving, that does not mean that sleeping is more dangerous (a percentage idea) than skydiving. The reason that more people die while sleeping is that basically everyone sleeps everyday (usually for a significant amount of time each day), while very few people skydive at all, much less skydive every day.